StudyHub

1.In Phase 1 trials, researchers test an experimental drug or treatment in a small group of young healthy men for the first time to evaluate its safety, determine a safe dosage range, and identify side effects. Why are women not normally entered into Phase 1 clinical trials?

 

2.How is the generic name of a drug derived?

 

3.The ADEC classification of drugs in pregnancy categorises drugs from category A (no identified risk to the foetus after the drug has been taken by large numbers of pregnant women) to X. But B is the category that is used in Australia for drugs that have had limited human data, so we should not think of B as always safer than a C or less safe than an A. What kind of drug does category X depict?

 

4.According to the Uniform scheduling of drugs and poisons in Australia, what is a. category 3 drug and b. what is a category 8 drug?

 

5.There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, I, II, III and IV. Drugs can cause any one of these, but only one involves histamine release and is considered an allergy. Which hypersensitivity reaction is it and what is the primary vasoactive substance involved in that reaction?

 

6.There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, I, II, III and IV. Drugs can cause any one of these, but only one involves a delay of 24 to 72 hours. The others are ‘immediate’ hypersensitivity reactions. Which hypersensitivity reaction is delayed?

 

7.After a drug is swallowed, it is absorbed by the digestive system and enters the hepatic portal venous system. The drug then goes through the liver before it reaches the rest of the body. This is called the hepatic first pass. How would a drug be taken if it needs to avoid the hepatic first pass?

 

8.Our drugs that work on receptors can be agonists or antagonists. So they would bind to the receptor and cause the same reaction (agonist) or bind to the receptor, blocking the action (antagonists). But our drugs can work on enzymes as well. An enzyme is a protein that catalyses or speeds up a reaction. Name the most common way that our drugs affect enzymes.

 

9.What effect would exercise have on absorption of a drug that is administered by intramuscular injection?

 

10.What is the term that we use to describe a. the extent of the binding of a drug to a receptor/ how strong the drug binds to the receptor or protein and b. The ability of a drug to achieve the desired result is best described by what term?

 

11.The half-life of a drug is 3 hours and at this moment the amount of drug that is circulating in Mrs CV’s system is 100mg. How much would be left in her system after 6 hours?

 

12.During what period of pregnancy are drugs most likely to cause harm to the foetus?

 

13.A suppository is a rectally administered drug that is made to bypass the first pass mechanism and get straight into the bloodstream. But while the blood from the lower portion of the rectum goes straight to general circulation, the blood from the upper portion of the rectum goes to the liver. In light of this what recommendation do you have for a client taking a suppository?

 

14.An enteric coating is a barrier applied to oral medication that attempts to control the location in the GIT where it breaks down or is absorbed. Most enteric coatings have a surface that is stable at the highly acidic environment of the stomach, but breaks down rapidly at a less acidic pH. Given that the medication is made to prevent breakdown in the stomach, what is one instruction that should always be included with enteric coated medicines?

 

15.Penicillin is the most common cause of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis typically presents symptoms in 5 to 30 minutes if exposure is intravenous and 2 hours if consumed orally. Anaphylaxis is a severe type I hypersensitivity reaction, which results in basophils and mast cells releasing histamine to dilate blood vessels and increase their permeability. Why does adrenaline address anaphylaxis so well?

 

16.Pharmacokinetics (Greek pharmakon “drug” and kinetikos “to do with motion”); is a branch of pharmacology dedicated to the determination of the fate of substances administered externally to a living organism. What are the four main processes that are covered by pharmacokinetics?

 

17.In medicine, the term photosensitivity is used for abnormal reactions of the skin, and two types are distinguished, photoallergy and phototoxicity. If a drug causes a photoallergy, what type of hypersensitivity reaction is it and how long would it take to manifest? (note that the term photo‘allergy’ is a misnomer, because it is not a true allergy, which is a type I hypersensitivity)

 

18.Medications delivered subcutaneously, intradermally, and intramuscularly all need to be absorbed through a blood vessel wall (meaning that they should be lipophilic so that they can cross through the blood vessel wall). Which type of delivery would be necessary for a drug that needed to get into systemic circulation but was hydrophilic?

 

19.A drug or food that induces a liver enzyme is going to increase a particular cytochrome P450 liver enzyme. This will result in what effect for drugs?

 

20.The main job of the liver with respect to drug metabolism is to make the drug more water soluble, so that it can be excreted more easily. This means that liver disease will extend the life expectancy of the drug. Excessive alcohol consumption in itself should be viewed as a form of temporary liver disease, because the liver needs to concentrate on removing the massive amount of toxins from the system. Given this, what does alcoholic consumption due to the half-life of most drugs?)

 

21.Drug metabolism is divided into three phases, the most important of which are phases I and II. In phase I, enzymes such as cytochrome P450 oxidases modify the drug chemically by drug processes such as oxidation or reduction. Name the two most important things affected n this process. (what two properties of the drug are affected by phase I and II reactions?

 

22.In the body, when the natural substance binds to a receptor it will normally produce 100% of the effect. Our drugs can bind to that receptor causing 100% of the normal response, in which case it is an agonist. Our drugs can also bind to the receptor, causing no response, in which case the drug is an antagonist. A third possibility is that it is a partial agonist, in which case it binds to the receptor and causes 1-99% of the response. Question: complete the sentence, A very weak, partial agonist that has only 1% of the response as the natural substance is in effect, closest to ______ (an agonist or an antagonist)?

 

23.If a drug competes with the substrate (the natural substance that is normally acted on by that enzyme) for the active spot, and therefore can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate, it is said to work by:

 

24.You are looking at a drug name in a closed book exam, and you don’t remember ever seeing the drug before. How will you try to figure out what drug group the drug belongs to?

 

25.Some foods increase acid production, speeding the breakdown of the drug and preventing absorption and distribution of the drug. While you need to check the drug monograph before giving instructions to the patient, how should most drugs be taken in relation to food

26.Another student asks you for the answer to a question on the worksheet. What will you say? Check the feedback to the weekly quizzes.

27.A client with pulmonary oedema has fluid somewhere in the lungs. Where is the fluid and which group of drugs will almost always be used?

 

28.The most common presentation of uncomplicated pneumonia comes with what degree of pain?

 

29.The condition of inflammation in the pleural spaces, which is the space in between the double casing surrounding the lungs is known as what?

 

30.The condition of increased amounts of fluid in the pleural spaces is known as what?

 

31.Lung pathologies can be broadly classified as those that affect the exchange of gasses at the level of the alveoli, in other words alveolar respiration, and those that affect the movement in and out of the lungs, or in other words the ventilation disorders. Which one of those two broad classifications of disorders will our medication most successfully treat?

 

32.In upper respiratory disorders like allergic sinusitis and the common cold, blood vessels are more permeable, leading to increased fluid in the nasal area. This in turn increases mucus secretion, prompting increase in mucus secretion. Much of the plasma takes time to be excreted resulting in the pain associated with nasal congestion. A decongestant is often used to treat this. What is the main mechanism by which decongestants work and give one example of a decongestant?

 

33.Two groups of medications attempt to expel mucus from the respiratory system. a. What is the name of the medication that dissolves thick mucus, often by dissolving the chemical bonds within secretions? And b. What is the term for the medications that increase the amount of the client’s own secretions, resulting in more yet clearer secretions? Give one example of each.

 

34.Antitussives are cough suppressants and as such are useful in blocking the cough reflex and preserving the energy associated with prolonged, non-productive coughing. Define the character of the cough for which antitussives work best.

 

35.Antihistamines are classed as first generation or second generation, depending on whether they break the blood brain barrier, causing drowsiness (first generation) or not. It is best to stay away from the first-generation antihistamines for long term use or for allergic rhinitis, because they are associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease. What are two conditions that first generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine can help with, BECAUSE they break the blood brain barrier (the conditions that do not involve a runny nose or allergic conditions)?

 

36.Finding out where a client’s cough is coming from can be helpful in figuring out the problem and helping that person. The cough reflex is normally triggered by irritation to receptors in the trachea, main carina, branching points of large airways, and more distal smaller airways; however, cough receptors are also present in the pharynx. Laryngeal and tracheobronchial receptors respond to both mechanical and chemical stimuli. Name the location of some other airway cough receptors

 

37.We only call a medicine “cough medicine” if it actually suppresses the cough. Some medicines like expectorants or mucolytic agents help with certain types of cough by helping remove the mucus that is resting on the cough receptor. Most cough medicines belong to what drug class?

 

38.Treatment of obstructive pulmonary disorders is aimed at opening the conducting airways and/or decreasing the effects of inflammation. In each disorder, ventilation (bulk flow of air) is affected more than respiration (the exchange of gases at the alveoli). Therefore, these disorders often respond to opening airways and/or decreasing inflammation or the effects of inflammation. What are the three most common obstructive disorders?

 

39.Emphysema is called an obstructive lung disorder because air gets trapped in the respiratory system, making it difficult to remove the old air and get new air in. This is a result of a loss of elasticity in the airways. What two structures in the airway incur the most damage in emphysema?

 

40.Chronic bronchitis is called an obstructive lung disorder because air is being obstructed in the respiratory system. Changes in chronic bronchitis include a thickening of airways, and a hyperplasia of the mucus secreting cells, allowing more mucus to be secreted. What structures incur the most damage in chronic bronchitis? What is the primary group of medications for chronic bronchitis?

 

41.Emphysema and chronic bronchitis often occur together. What is the name of the disorder when this happens?

 

42.Two of the types of bronchodilators used to treat a person with an obstructive disorder are to use a sympathomimetic (a drug that mimics the sympathetic nervous system, or mimics the actions of adrenaline) and to use a parasympathetic nervous system blocker (an anticholinergic drug). Name the most common short term sympathomimetic and the most commonly used long term sympathomimetic.

 

43.Inhaled corticosteroids should be included in the medication regime for asthma if the person is using their β2 agonist ‘rescue remedy’ like salbutamol more than three to four times per week. Think of what is happening when they are reaching for that medication. Each time an asthmatic reaches for their quick acting bronchodilator, they are having an acute asthmatic attack, so they need to include a medication that decreases their immune response in their lungs. Name two common corticosteroids that can be inhaled and can decrease most immune responses in the lungs.

 

44.Xanthines are a group of alkaloids used as mild stimulants and as bronchodilators, especially in the treatment of asthma. Xanthines stimulate the respiratory centre, and are used for treatment of infantile apnoea. Due to widespread effects, the therapeutic index of xanthines is narrow, making them merely a second-line asthma treatment. What are the signs of xanthine toxicity?

 

45.To which drug group does salbutamol belong? (answer in the clinical case studies)

 

46.To which drug group does timolol belong? (This is answered in the feedback to the case studies)

 

47.Give one reason why timolol eyedrops and salbutamol inhaler should not be used at the same time. (The answer is found in the feedback to the case studies)

 

48.Tiotropium bromide is a long acting bronchodilator used in the management of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. To which drug class does tiotropium bromide belong? (The answer can be found in the feedback to the clinical case studies)

 

49.Leukotrienes are a family of inflammatory mediators produced by mast cells and leukocytes. In an asthmatic response, there is an immediate short-term reaction that is due to the release of histamine and a later, more prolonged response caused by leukotrienes. One of their roles is to trigger contractions in the smooth muscles lining the bronchioles. Leukotriene antagonists can be used to treat asthma by blocking the actions of leukotrienes at the receptor on target cells such as bronchial smooth muscle. Name two Leukotriene receptor antagonists that are used in the treatment of asthma. (The answer can be found in the feedback to the clinical case studies)

 

50.What is the main difference between salmeterol and salbutamol. (The answer can be found in the feedback to the clinical case studies)

51.The autonomic nervous system is the involuntary subconscious motor component of the peripheral nervous system and does not maintain body posture, balance, or special senses. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) functions include controlling the action of involuntary organs and tissues. The ANS regulates the secretion of products from glands, the rate and force of contraction of heart muscle, and the contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle, bronchioles, blood vessels and the gastrointestinal tract. The autonomic nervous system differs from the other portion of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) in that it:

 

52.Selectivity refers to a drug’s ability to preferentially produce a particular effect and is related to the structural specificity of drug binding to receptors. For example, propranolol (a β-blocker/antagonist) binds equally well to β1- and β2-adrenoceptors but metoprolol is a more selective beta blocker. It is a β-blocker that binds selectively to β1-adrenoceptors so it can affect the heart without constricting the bronchi in the lungs. Another example involves beta agonists. Receptor selectivity in adrenergic agonists is desirable as potentially unwanted effects caused by stimulation of additional receptors are minimised. However, despite ‘selective’ stimulation, Beta 2 agonists for instance, will have a mild effect on other sympathetic nervous system receptors, potentially leading to a slight increase in heart rate (especially with high doses). The other problem is that each organ does not have its own receptor. For instance, Beta 2 receptors are on the lungs but are also located GI tract where stimulation to the receptor will result in ______________________.

 

53.Selective stimulation of the alpha 1 receptor with an agonist (a medication that acts like adrenaline) would result in what effect to the blood pressure?

 

54.Receptors that respond to noradrenaline are called adrenergic. Adrenergic drugs are also known as sympathoMIMETICS, because they mimic the sympathetic nervous system response. The receptors on the organs in the parasympathetic nervous system that respond to acetylcholine (ACh) are called cholinergic or also known as __________ receptors?

 

55.The adrenergic agent that would be most suitable in an intravenous administration for anaphylactic shock is adrenaline. In anaphylactic shock, basophils and mast cells all throughout the body are releasing histamine. Adrenaline counteracts the vasodilation and bronchoconstriction caused by histamine, and increases heart rate and contractility, making up for the fact that fluid has escaped from the blood vessels into the interstitial spaces (histamine also increases vascular permeability leading to this oedema). Since adrenaline has the opposite effects to histamine, it is called the physiologic _________ of histamine.

 

56.Name a. one beta 1-selective agonist used to increase the heart rate in heart failure and b. a beta 2 agonist used to open up the airways in asthmatics and c. an alpha 1-selective agonist found in cold and allergy preparations

 

57.Very simply explain why there are no beta 2 antagonists.

 

58.Non-selective adrenergic agonists can cause hypertension in 3 ways. Name them. (what actions do they have that result in increased blood pressure)

 

59.Adrenergic agonists have positive chronotropic and positive inotropic effects, meaning that hasten the heartbeat over time (chrono = time) and increase the force of the heart contractions (inos = fibre). Using that statement and your logic (not directly answered in the feedback to the weekly quizzes) describe the ‘tropic’ effects of an adrenergic antagonist.

 

60.Drugs like labetalol carvedilol and amiodarone, which block all adrenergic receptor sites are used for a variety of cardiac related illnesses including hypertension, heart failure and as an anti-arrhythmic drug. Labetalol is particularly useful in in a particular type of pregnancy induced hypertension called ___________?

 

61.Beta 1 selective sympatholytics like atenolol and metoprolol do not block the Beta 2 receptors that are responsible for bronchodilation and are therefore preferred for people with respiratory problems. Beta 2 receptors in the lung, on the other hand, are responsible for bronchodilation when stimulated, and blocking these does not allow the bronchodilation needed in respiratory illnesses. Therefore, a person who is suspected of having chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is being treated with a Beta-blocker is most likely to receive a drug of what drug class?

 

62.MM is taking an adrenergic blocker and needs to stop taking this medication. What advice will you give her?

 

63.Postural hypotension (or orthostatic hypotension) can be caused by some of our medications. Postural hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mm Hg when a person assumes a standing position. In reality though, if your patient gets dizzy or light headed without reaching the figures above, there is a still a danger of the patient falling and that patient should be considered to have postural hypotension. Normally, as one stands from a seated position, gravity pulls the blood down but the sympathetic nervous system immediately raises the blood pressure to prevent cerebral hypoxia (decreased oxygen to the brain). A healthy person therefore often has a few mm Hg increase in pressure when standing, while a person on beta blockers loses some of this effect. Name two drug classes based on the sympathetic nervous system that can cause orthostatic hypotension and cite the suffix that denotes those drug classes.

 

64.Indirect cholinergic agents like _________ and ___________ inhibit acetylcholinesterase to increase acetylcholine concentrations. Acetylcholinesterase is the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine (ACh). Preventing ACh from doing its job increases the level of ACh in the synaptic cleft. This results in increased stimulation of the cholinergic receptor sites. While these drugs are good for patients with Alzheimer’s disease because they increase acetylcholine in the brain, they result in bronchoconstriction, increased GIT motility, pupil constriction, increased muscle tension and bradycardia, which you would expect from a drug that increases the parasympathetic nervous system, the rest and digest system.

 

65.Pilocarpine, a direct acting cholinergic agonist, works like acetylcholine directly on the acetylcholine receptors. The rest and digest system increases salivation and constricts the pupils of the eyes. When we are resting and digesting we need very little light but a lot of activity in the GIT. What are the two most common conditions that are treated by pilocarpine?

 

66.In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies destroy the receptor sites for acetylcholine (ACh) in muscles. Neostigmine and other indirect cholinergic agonists prevent the breakdown of ACh in the synaptic cleft. The fewer remaining receptor sites have longer to take up the neurotransmitter ACh when these agents are administered. Because of the fact that there is increased ACh in the muscles and also the organs of the parasympathetic nervous system, these agents have many side effects, including: (please do not get into the habit of cutting and pasting the work of others. That is a breach of the academic integrity policy. Please be sure to arrange the side effects in the way that best suits your logical approach to remembering them.)

 

67.Myasthenia gravis is a loss of acetylcholine receptor sites in the neuromuscular junction. Parkinson’s disease is a degeneration of dopamine producing cells in the basal ganglia. Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive loss of __________-producing neurons and their target neurons in the CNS. Indirect acting cholinergic agonists such as galantamine are used in the management of Alzheimer’s dementia.

 

68.Name an acetylcholine antagonist that is used for reliving gastrointestinal spasms and motion sickness

 

69.Most of the time, when a medication is meant to be taken with plenty of water, it is nephrotoxic, meaning that it damages the kidneys if not taken with plenty of water. Anticholinergic agents are recommended to be taken with plenty of water for another reason. What is that reason?

 

70.What can be recommended to a client who is complaining about the dry mouth that occurs with anticholinergic medications like hyoscine, atropine and diphenhydramine?

 

71.WM is on Donepezil for her Alzheimer’s disease. You suspect she took more than the recommended dose again, as she is exhibiting the manifestations of a cholinergic crisis. What is she complaining of?

 

72.IA is a 49-year-old male who complains of dry mouth, difficulty in urination, constipation, and blurred vision. You recognize these symptoms as being common side effects of one subset of Autonomic nervous system (ANS) drugs. Which subset of ANS drugs should you investigate? (Answer can be found in the Case studies)

 

73.What drug class of the autonomic nervous system would be most useful in treating a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia? (Answer can be found in the Case studies)

 

74.DD is a 72-year-old male who complains of decreased urinary flow, dribbling after urination, frequent night-time urination (nocturia), and urinary urgency. Upon questioning, he reports that he has not seen any blood in his urine and there is no pain or discomfort with urination. What disorder is most likely in DD’s case? (the answer to this question can be found in the case studies)

 

75.Despite her best efforts, RS (a 55-year-old female) has not been successful in decreasing her urge incontinence with pelvic floor exercises and lifestyle therapy. What medication from the autonomic nervous system group of medications would be considered for RS? (The answer to this can be found in the case studies)

 

76.Growth hormone deficiencies can occur in both adults and in children. In newborn infants, the primary manifestations may be hypoglycaemia; whereas in later infancy and childhood, growth will be affected. One of the causes of decreased production of growth hormone in children occurs when the child is abused or neglected, or has disturbed sleep, especially in the first few hours of their sleep. Growth hormone is predominantly secreted in the first hour of sleep. What is the medication that is given to children with growth hormone deficiency?

 

77.What two conditions are DesmoPRESSIN and other …PRESSIN drugs prescribed for?

 

78.Oxytocin is a hormone secreted from the pituitary gland. As a medication, it is used to initiate labour, control postpartum haemorrhage, and promote breast milk production. How is it normally administered? (two ways)

 

79.The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted, which takes about ____ after the start of therapy.

 

80.What is the name of the most common medication to treat hypothyroidism?

 

81.Glucocorticoids are corticosteroids like cortisol that promote the preservation of energy through increasing glucose levels, protein breakdown, and fat formation. Glucocorticoids are stress hormones that are important in preventing hypoglycaemia. They do this by increasing glucose, taking proteins and breaking them down for use in preference to glucose and forming fat in areas that can easily be accessed for energy in the future. Glucocorticoids are also important in the fact that they decrease many aspects of immune function. While this is not normally too significant in physiological doses, pharmacologic glucocorticoids like cortisone, hydrocortisone and prednisone can be exploited for their ability to decrease immune reactions. Give five examples of drugs that have glucocorticoid actions.

 

82.Understanding the normal patterns of secretion of hormones will help you understand why certain drugs need to be administered in certain ways. When does peak cortisol occur? When does growth hormone normally get secreted?

 

83.Physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shifts can occur when patients abruptly discontinue corticosteroid use after having been on them for over a month or so. This is a type of adrenal crisis. A client who has been on any of the corticosteroids for a month or so should be given this information about withdrawing the medication:

 

84.AP is started on a regimen of prednisone because of a crisis in her ulcerative colitis (an autoimmune disorder that affects the large intestine). The information you need to provide AP will need to include when the drug should be taken. In this case, ‘administration of the drug around 8 or 9 am to mimic normal diurnal rhythm if the client has a normal sleep wake cycle’. But AP works night shifts. What advice will you provide her? (this is not directly answered in the feedback but you can figure it out from what is said in the feedback.)

 

85.AA has received a kidney transplant and is on corticosteroids to decrease the possibility of rejection. Corticosteroids are Glucocorticoids and, in our body, they help us out of acute stress (like hypoglycaemia or too little fluid in the blood vessels). In that type of situation, we need to decrease the activity of cells that we don’t need as much. So, every arm of the immune system is decreased when we have an acute stress. The trouble is that when drugs similar to these hormones are used (in pharmacological doses which are much greater than physiological doses), there is a massive decrease in the immune system. So what general advice should be provided to AA. (the answer to the relevant multiple-choice question is the correct answer in this case.)

 

86.An insufficiency of the adrenal gland (Adrenal insufficiency) results in decreased Glucocorticoids like cortisol and decreased Mineralocorticoids like aldosterone, the salt saver. (These are steroidal hormones secreted from the adrenal cortex.) Therefore, a client who has adrenal insufficiency will need to take a glucocorticoid (like hydrocortisone) along with a mineralocorticoid replacement. What is the name of a common mineralocorticoid replacement?

 

87.Name three complications of long-term glucocorticoid (corticosteroid) treatment.

 

88.A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:

 

89.Give the name of an oral selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has estrogenic actions on bone and anti-estrogenic actions on the uterus and breast. It is used in the prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women and for the prevention of breast cancer postmenopausal women at increased risk. Please give the name of the medication that is preferred over tamoxifen, as tamoxifen is associated with increased risk of uterine cancer and of cataracts.

 

90.How many letter R’s are in the word PROSTATE?

 

91.Which hormone from the parathyroid glands regulate calcium?

 

92.What is the drug of choice for the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis, as it acts to slow or block bone resorption. The drug does not inhibit normal bone formation and mineralisation and is taken as a weekly pill.

 

93.The drug used for treatment of osteoporosis that mimics the body’s own parathyroid hormone is called:

 

94.When blood glucose levels are high, glucose molecules attach to the haemoglobin in red blood cells. The longer hyperglycaemia and the higher the level of glucose in the blood, the more glucose binds to haemoglobin in the red blood cells and the higher the glycated haemoglobin. What is the name and abbreviation of the blood test that measures this? (It is a good measure of overall glucose control because it reflects the average level of glucose over the past weeks to 3 months rather than the normal “snapshot in time” readings.)

 

95.People who have recently developed hyperglycaemia often present with polyuria which is an increase in urine production. This is because a person with hyperglycaemia has more glucose in their blood than the amount that can be reabsorbed in the kidney tubules. The excess glucose then goes through the rest of the tubule promoting ‘the spontaneous net movement of fluid through the selectively permeable membrane’ of the tubules. So, the glucose in the tubule is working in what way to increase urine?

 

96.If the initial symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia are ignored, the presenting complaint of the diabetic will include ___________ disturbances.

 

97.The first line therapy for diabetes type II has been conclusively shown to prevent the cardiovascular complications of diabetes. It helps reduce LDL cholesterol and triglyceride levels and is not associated with weight gain. The first line therapy for the treatment of diabetes type II is

 

98.The first line therapy for diabetes type I is associated with the risk of developing hypoglycaemia, and weight gain. First line therapy for diabetes type I is: (just the general group, not a specific type)

 

99.Our brain needs glucose to survive, as it is one of its two sources of energy. Therefore, we evolved making sure there were multiple hormones that increase blood glucose. Thyroid hormones, growth hormone adrenaline and the glucocorticoids (cortisol and other corticosteroids) all raise the blood level of glucose. This is important, as any medications based on the above hormones will also raise the blood levels of glucose. What is the other hormone that raises blood levels of glucose?

 

100.Diabetes is a disorder of high blood levels of glucose (hyperglycemia). Diabetics may get low blood glucose (hypoglycaemia) with certain drugs like sulfonylureas and insulin but diabetes itself is a disorder of high blood glucose. How does the second-generation sulfonylurea glimepiride decrease glucose levels?